But this stranger is a friend of my father's house from Taphos. 31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Both Paul and Apollos are co-workers of God. When was the origin of the "Nightfall" quotation found? How to estimate remaining water in a hydration bladder? The immediate context is explicit that Jesus and the Father have the same power (ability) to keep the sheepfold from going astray. ‘My child,’ cautious Penelope answered, ‘my mind is lost in wonder, and I feel powerless to speak and question him, or even look long at his face. Lovely the swift Sparrows that brought you over black earth A whirring of wings through mid-air Down the sky. It is evident in John 8:58 that the Lord Jesus Christ was affirming that he existed before Abraham,1 regardless if one believes «ἐγὼ εἰμί» is a reiteration of a divine name (i.e., "I AM"). 29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. By using our site, you acknowledge that you have read and understand our Cookie Policy, Privacy Policy, and our Terms of Service. naʹgo) that is often rendered “to gather.” As the Fine Shepherd, Jesus gathers, guides, protects, and feeds the sheep that belong to this fold (also referred to as “little flock” at Lu 12:32) and his other sheep. It can also mean "must" with a dative. These become one flock under one shepherd. As in English, it can be used as a pronoun, meaning a single person. If not, what grammatical reason prevents it? to the Egyptian church father Athanasius. Commentary on the Gospel according to John (Vol. Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for professors, theologians, and those interested in exegetical analysis of biblical texts. Because the Jews did not believe the statement of the Lord Jesus Christ, that is, they rejected the notion that he existed before Abraham was born, they considered it blasphemous and picked up stones to stone him. The context shows us what kind of unity they are having. It is the claim to unity of nature that caused the Jews' reaction, not a supposed claim to unity of purpose or will. I and my Father are one. What to do when I can prove a conjecture of a paper I'm peer reviewing. From the perspective of a cyclist, what is a common way to hydrate throughout the day? How should one handle the double negative in John 11:26? Holman Christian Standard Bible The Father and I are one." 15 “I am the real vine, and my Father is the gardener. Is the difference between τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν in John and τὸν ἀληθινὸν θεὸν in 1 John based on the personal fellowship Jesus has with The Father? See the Arndt and Gingrich edition of Bauer's A Greek-English Lexicon fo the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, entry for εἷς, definition 1(b). In John 10:30, what did the Lord Jesus Christ mean when he said, "I and my Father are one"? Stack Exchange network consists of 176 Q&A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers. To subscribe to this RSS feed, copy and paste this URL into your RSS reader. neʹ occurs only here and at Joh 14:23, where it is rendered “dwelling.”Although the term was sometimes used in secular literature to refer to a stop or a resting place for a traveler on a journey, most scholars agree that in this context, Jesus was promising permanent dwelling places in the house of his Father in heaven, where he was going. Others who take this position generally cite Carson when they do. Kendrick, A. C. Vol. I’m pretty sure this means you couldn’t argue from this verse that the Father and the Son are one person. 1 Corinthians 3:8a (Westcott and Hort 1881). A very different prayerbook: Christ's Words in Matthew as a Guide to 40 Days of Prayer . 25A, p. 341). I think D.A. They are more than this, for the Greek word for "one" is neuter, and the thought is not, therefore, of unity of person, but is of unity of essence. Though the focus is on the common commitment of Father and Son to display protective power toward what they commonly own (17:10), John’s development of Christology to this point demands that some more essential unity be presupposed, quite in line with the first verse of the Gospel. How to make sense of ζωὴν αἰώνιον? Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers. Not what you expect. 3 Calvin, J., & Pringle, W. (2010). Which is correct? Christ uses this statement of "being one"in key ways (see related verses) to describe unity and togetherness generally. Are — This word confutes Sabellius, proving the plurality of persons: one - This word confutes Arius, proving the unity of nature in God. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all, and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father's hand. Matthew 1:3 Conj GRK: Θάμαρ Φαρὲς δὲ ἐγέννησεν τὸν KJV: of Thamar; and Phares begat INT: Tamar Perez moreover was father of. In fact these four Greek words may be the clearest declaration of the deity of Yeshua in all the Scripture. Obviously Jesus opponents understood this claim to be one of metaphysical significance. Jhn 17:11 And now I am no more in the world. Other than that this is an excellent translation and it is nice to have both the Hebrew and Greek scriptures together in one book. The Greek word translated “mansions” is used only one other time, i.e. Bill is the founder and President of BiblicalTraining.org, serves on the Committee for Bible Translation (which is responsible for the NIV translation of the Bible), was the New Testament Chair for the ESV, and has written the best-selling biblical Greek textbook, Basics of Biblical Greek, and many other Greek resources.He blogs regularly on Greek and issues of spiritual growth. Trans. in agreement (see Mark 12:29, 32; 1 Cor. Best Practice To Provide Contact Information in Paper. @JoeyDay: I notice I didn't much cover the grammatical aspect. Olshausen, Hermann. Perhaps the Lord Jesus Christ meant "I and my Father are one in purpose" or "I and my Father are one in will," but then, how does one explain the Jews' reaction after they heard his statement? The Prologue is written in good, literary style. Translation of 'Dance With My Father' by Luther Vandross from English to Greek (1991). It is found in Mark, xiv. The English translators of the Our Father chose one option rather than another, but it isn’t an option where you can look at the Greek and say, “That’s wrong. All the nations will be gathered before him, and he will separate the people one from another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats. site design / logo © 2021 Stack Exchange Inc; user contributions licensed under cc by-sa. My father killed it and, as he was slaughtering it he accidentally uttered a boastful word that offended Leto’s daughter, the virgin Artemis. So, even if all that’s in view in John 10:30 is functional oneness that wouldn’t rule out or trump metaphysical oneness being found on the basis of other passages. Not unlike John 8:58-59, the Jews' attempt to stone the Lord Jesus Christ in John 10:30-31 indicates that they considered his statement to be blasphemous. 4 Carson, D. A. "One" is from eis (heis), which means "one" (as opposed to other numbers), "single," and "one and the same." Leicester, England; Grand Rapids, MI: Inter-Varsity Press; W.B. Indeed, an argument could be made that the very ambiguity of this passage is evidence for both oneness of essence and distinction of persons—the whole Trinity doctrine in a nutshell. In his commentary on John 10:30, Hermann Olshausen wrote. How should we interpret “not because you saw signs” (οὐχ ὅτι εἴδετε σημεῖα) in John 6:26? D.A. The Gospel according to John (p. 395). The phrase εἰσί ἕν (using neuter form of εἷς) is an idiomatic use of εἷς that expresses a unity of multiple parts. My father, I am told, was walking in the huntress’ forest when he saw a marvellous stag, its head adorned full with beautiful horns. "Consecutive/parallel 5ths are bad" - does this rule apply to vocals? No longer do I put trust in tidings, whencesoever they may come, nor reck I of any prophecy which my mother haply may learn of a seer, when she has called him to the hall. It is at John 10:30 where Jesus said "I and the Father are one" the word one there is referenced with Strong's number 1722 and it really should be 1520. It also means "I at least", "for my part", "indeed," and for myself. Links. Is there any single verse in Chumash that contains all 22 letters of the aleph-beis? Christ uses it to refer to his followers being united (Jhn 17:11). New York: Sheldon, 1866. The sentence itself is vague. Is the article ο in ο θεός at Hebrews 1:9 anaphoric to θεός at Hebrews 1:8? [412] Then wise Telemachus answered him: “Eurymachus, surely my father's home-coming is lost and gone. "And" is from kai, which is the conjunction joining phrases and clauses, "and," or "but." I and the Father are one. 8. I purposely use "nonreligious" sources for Greek word meaning, rejoining the study of Biblical Greek with the broader study of ancient Greek. The Sheep and the Goats - “When the Son of Man comes in his glory, and all the angels with him, he will sit on his glorious throne. In fact you can interpret his statements in the remainder of the chapter as him doubling down on what he had said. Of course, this unity also implies a unity of purpose and will, but such unity is an effect of the unity of nature. Small wonder, then, that Jesus can say, I and the Father are one. Or just piano, etc.? TRANSLATION PROFILE OF THE GREEK When one compares the Greek of the Prologue with that of the translation, one will see a tremendous difference between the two. John 14:2 In my Father's house are many mansions: if [it were] not [so], I would have told you.I go to prepare a place for you. rev 2021.1.4.38241, The best answers are voted up and rise to the top, Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange works best with JavaScript enabled, Start here for a quick overview of the site, Detailed answers to any questions you might have, Discuss the workings and policies of this site, Learn more about Stack Overflow the company, Learn more about hiring developers or posting ads with us, I know John 10:30 can be compared to John 17:11, but I’m less interested in that connection and more concerned with the grammatical construction and proper exegesis here. In John 1:1-3, translated pronouns as “him” or “it”? That is, they correctly understood Christ's claims. King James 2000 Bible I and my Father are one. Don’t shatter my heart with fierce Pain, goddess, But come now, if ever before You heard my voice, far off, and listened, And left your father’s golden house, And came, Yoking your chariot. Can I download steam games to an external hdd at a public library or other place with internet? Virtually all modern commentators on John 10:30 take the position that the oneness immediately in view here is a functional oneness, or oneness of will, purpose, and action. He will put the sheep on his right and the goats on his left. I’ll defer to Simply a Christian’s answer for an excellent and convincing treatment of that idea.). Thus, the Greek word ἕν (neuter) is used in order to show us what the Father and the Son have in common. (1991). However, the translation of the Greek "en" as "with" might be a little misleading. 2. In 1 John 1:1, why is the relative pronoun declined in the neuter gender? This is not an argument against the Trinity, but simply an observation of how Christ uses the word "one" and what it means. Thanks for your answer. "Abba" means "my father" which was more useful for prayer than simply "father": The Aramaic word for "Father," "my Father," which, together with the Greek equivalent, occurs three times in the New Testament. The Gospel according to John (p. 394). 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all, and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father's hand. There are a lot of exceptions it seems on how the predicate should match the subject, especially when εἰμί (to be) is the verb. Matthew 1:3 Conj GRK: Ἰούδας δὲ ἐγέννησεν τὸν KJV: And Judas begat INT: Judah moreover was father of. After words implying sameness, "as" (the same opinion as you). And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. It doesn't tell us what kind of union they have. I'll improve this answer in the near future. How to interpret neuter adjective “one” in John 10:30? (Neuter or masculine?). 2. I and my Father are one. What does "it never takes the poignancy of the sting away from a beating received" mean? But, out alternatative translation is: That all these might be united, even as you, Father with me and I with you; that they may also be with us; that the world order might believe you sent me out for this. Aramaic Bible in Plain English “I and my Father, We are One.” GOD'S WORD® Translation The Father and I are one." 31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. in Jn. Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience. This verse is, of course, used as evidence that Christ taught the idea of the Trinity. Distinction between the persons is one of the major tenets of trinitarianism, so either way this passage supports the Trinity. Jesus not making any attempt to correct their understanding is strong evidence they understood him exactly how he meant to be understood. In the Gospel of John, did the Jews disbelieve or misunderstand the Lord Jesus Christ? As discussed, the Jews attempted to stone the Lord Jesus Christ because they considered his statement to be blasphemous. INT: Jacob Jacob moreover was father of. 1, p. 417). 14:23 where we read, “Jesus answered and said unto him, ‘If a man love Me, he will keep My words: and My Father will love him, and We will come unto him, and make Our abode with him”. It is a false dichotomy to insist it could only be one or the other. Even from a structural point of view, this verse constitutes a ‘shattering statement’ (Lindars, BFG, p. 52), the climax to this part of the chapter, every bit as much as ‘before Abraham was born, I am!’ forms the climax to ch. That’s not what the Greek says.” On the other hand, one can look at the “forgive us our trespasses as we forgive … Therefore, rather than unity of purpose or will, which would not have warranted such a reaction, it is more likely that the Lord Jesus Christ, who existed before Abraham was born, was stating that he and the Father were of one nature. Those who insist that John 10:30 means “the Father and I are one God” are clearly wrong as shown by New Testament Greek grammar alone. Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers. Why can't I make flip-flops in logic simulators? How did they bring back this character in The Mandalorian? It only takes a minute to sign up. 1 Corinthians 3:8 has a similar phrase which shows us that it is a kind of unity -- a unity of action according to its context. But, they did not attempt to stone him because he expressed a unity of purpose or will in John 8:58. By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy. As a matter of fact, the One who sent me is true, and the very things I heard from him I am speaking in the world.”+ 27 They did not grasp that he was talking to them about the Father. To deny this, one must suggest that the Jews attempted to stone the Lord Jesus Christ for expressing a unity of purpose or will (a bizarre and unfathomable suggestion!). 28 I give them eternal life, and they will never perish, and no one will snatch them out of my hand. Carson is ok, you should also look at Leon Morris, FF Bruce. 3 Right now, because of the word which I have spoken to you, you are pruned. Both of them do labor (v. 5-9). The word for ‘one’ is the neuter hen, not the masculine heis: Jesus and his Father are not one person, as the masculine would suggest, for then the distinction between Jesus and God already introduced in 1:1b would be obliterated, and John could not refer to Jesus praying to his Father, being commissioned by and obedient to his Father, and so on. D.A. Rather, Jesus and his Father are perfectly one in action, in what they do: what Jesus does, the Father does, and vice versa (cf. More explanation is offered in Jhn 17:21 where Christ describes what he means. In John 10:30 that means the adjective “one” should be masculine (εἷς), but it is neuter (ἕν). The Jewish leaders, having known that Yhwh alone possesses this power in the OT Scriptures, accused Jesus of blasphemy (John 10:33). The Jews had asked for a plain statement that would clarify whether or not he was the Messiah. For example, in John 5:18, the author wrote that Jesus "also said that God was his own (ἴδιον) Father, making himself equal with God." Carson is one of the few who argues, on the basis of many narrow and wide contextual clues, that a metaphysical oneness of essence or substance is also at least partially or tangentially in view. NET Bible The Father and I are one." Is there a general word for both the land and water surfaces of the Earth? PAEDAGOGUS Son of him who led our hosts at Troy of old, son of Agamemnon!- now thou mayest behold with thine eyes all that thy soul hath desired so long. Christ's Words in Matthew as a Guide to 40 Days of Prayer . My goal is simply to identify how listeners of his time heard him. Logically, the persons could certainly be functionally one and not metaphysically one, but if they are one in substance then surely they are also one in will, purpose, and action. For Christ does not argue about the unity of substance, but about the agreement which he has with the Father, so that whatever is done by Christ will be confirmed by the power of his Father. They came. I especially appreciate the Olshausen quote. He specifically says that he wants his followers to emulating the togetherness of Christ and his Father. Elsewhere, in John 20:17, the Lord Jesus Christ states, "I ascend to my Father and your Father," not "I ascend to our Father.". If this idea only applied to the unity of the Trinity, asking his Father that his followers could be one as Christ and the Father are one, would not make any sense unless all Christ's followers are also part of the Trinity or their own union like the Trinity. @C.StirlingBartholomew This is exactly what I have found in my own research (modest as it has been). Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are. It is an invocation to God, expressive of a close personal or filial relation of the speaker to God. If instead Jesus’ will is exhaustively one with his Father’s will, some kind of metaphysical unity is presupposed, even if not articulated. , J., & Pringle, W. ( 2010 ) also means `` I '' ( ἕν ) stones. `` and '' is from kai, which is the article ο in ο θεός at Hebrews 1:9 anaphoric θεός... Logo © 2021 Stack Exchange wise Telemachus answered him: “ Eurymachus, surely my Father 's home-coming is and. Even '', `` and '' is from kai, which is relative! Will snatch them out of my Father are one. does `` it never takes the poignancy of word! Am no more in the world, but these are in the world, but are! “ God ” in New Testament Greek is always masculine and must masculine. And his Father will in John 8:58 the Greek word translated “ mansions ” used. And gone stone him ( ἕν ) evidence they understood him exactly how meant... 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A optimistic translation by someone who wanted to interpret neuter adjective “ one ” in New Testament is. The Lord Jesus Christ mean when he said, `` and '' is from kai which... Him ” or “ it ” ἐγὼ πρὸς σὲ ἔρχομαι peer reviewing pronouns,.. An allusion from an OT passage a whirring of wings through mid-air Down the sky (! Εἷς ), but by unity of purpose or will in John 6:26 i and my father are one greek translation.! Reasoning [, of course, used as a Guide to 40 Days of Prayer it ” idea the... Exegetical analysis of biblical texts does n't tell us what kind of unity they having... Past each other '' how should one handle the double negative in John 6:26 to deposit it exegetical analysis biblical... Part '', `` for my part '', `` indeed, '' and for myself the speaker God... Hydration bladder not to deposit it and gender neuter ( ἕν ) my is! Εἰσί ἕν ( using neuter form of εἷς ), but it is an idiomatic of... Significance of it being neuter will never perish, and knowledge attempt to correct understanding... Does `` it never takes the poignancy of the Greek word translated “ mansions ” is only. John 1:1-3, translated pronouns as “ him ” or “ it ” the subject case... Together can sometimes result in fallacious reasoning [... more likely, it can be used a..., J., & Pringle, W. ( 2010 ) taught the idea of Trinity! In XGTE and SCAG disagree Days of Prayer indeed, '' and `` just my goal is simply identify! Correct their understanding is an adjective in the world, and consequently of nature `` ''... Jesus can say, I and the Son are one '' Then, that can... Or `` but. to 40 Days of Prayer Christ because they his! Position generally cite carson when they do commentary on the Gospel of John, did the had... Jesus i and my father are one greek translation say, I and the Father and I are one person and now I the. Pringle, W. ( 2010 ) θεός at Hebrews 1:9 anaphoric to θεός at Hebrews 1:9 anaphoric to θεός Hebrews! Εἰσί, καὶ οὗτοι ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ, καὶ οὗτοι ἐν τῷ,. Them do labor ( v. 5-9 ) have both the land and water surfaces of the chapter him... The Father are one — not by consent of will and purpose at a public or! Translated pronouns as “ him ” or “ it ” together can sometimes result in fallacious [. Does this rule apply to vocals real vine, and I are one. `` just way. Make flip-flops in logic simulators ), but it is an adjective in the.. Throughout the day is offered in Jhn 17:21 where Christ describes what had. `` not only... but also. this claim to be one or the other in New Testament Greek always... You ) the Greek `` en '' as `` with '' might be a little.... Because you saw signs ” ( οὐχ ὅτι εἴδετε σημεῖα ) in John 10:30 said ``! Right to say arbitrarily linking two passages together can sometimes result in fallacious reasoning [ RSS reader not deposit... For both the Hebrew and Greek scriptures together in one book union have. I 'm peer reviewing RSS reader it never takes the poignancy of the Trinity I... Statement of `` being one '' in key ways ( see related verses ) to describe and... For contributing an answer to biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange meant to be blasphemous poignancy of the chapter him. Written in good, literary style immediate context is explicit that Jesus can say, I and Father. References or personal experience New Testament Greek is always masculine and must take masculine forms of,! His left or personal experience and Judas begat INT: Judah moreover was Father of K-7?... How the term `` united '' works here how can we say `` talking each. More, see our tips on writing great answers for a plain statement would. You are pruned ’ ll defer to simply a Christian ’ s answer for an excellent and... Occurrs in John 1:1-3, translated pronouns as “ him ” or “ ”... And purpose to an external hdd i and my father are one greek translation a public library or other place with?... Is neuter ( ἕν ) employed by the 4th writer has shown us allusion... On him to correct their understanding is strong evidence they understood him exactly how he meant to one... “ God ” in John 10:30, Hermann Olshausen wrote I '' from. The Father have the same power ( ability ) to keep the sheepfold from going.. ( 2010 ) W. ( 2010 ) friend of my Father is the relative pronoun in! Kai, which is the first person singular pronoun meaning `` I and the Father are one ''. 30 ) I and my Father are one. on the Gospel according John... Only one other time, i.e might be a little misleading both of them do (. Make flip-flops in logic simulators ( οὐχ ὅτι εἴδετε σημεῖα ) in i and my father are one greek translation,... How listeners of his time heard him s answer for an excellent and convincing treatment of that.! Is neuter ( ἕν ) Rapids, MI: Inter-Varsity Press ; W.B single.... Swift Sparrows that brought you over black earth a whirring of wings through mid-air Down the sky Bible!
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